AWS MCQs*

This is just for practice purpose.

  1. What is the AWS Shared Responsibility Model?
    • A) A model where AWS and customers share costs.
    • B) A model where AWS and customers share the responsibility for security and compliance.
    • C) A model where AWS is fully responsible for everything.
    • D) A model where customers are fully responsible for everything.
    • Answer: B) A model where AWS and customers share the responsibility for security and compliance.
  2. Which of the following is AWS responsible for in the Shared Responsibility Model?
    • A) Application code security
    • B) Customer data encryption
    • C) Physical security of data centers
    • D) Identity and access management policies
    • Answer: C) Physical security of data centers
  3. Which of the following is a customer responsibility under the Shared Responsibility Model?
    • A) Securing the hypervisor
    • B) Managing the security of guest operating systems
    • C) Physical access control to data centers
    • D) Ensuring network infrastructure security
    • Answer: B) Managing the security of guest operating systems
  4. What are shared controls in the AWS Shared Responsibility Model?
    • A) Controls managed entirely by AWS
    • B) Controls managed entirely by the customer
    • C) Controls that require both AWS and customer actions
    • D) Controls that neither AWS nor the customer manage
    • Answer: C) Controls that require both AWS and customer actions
  5. Which of the following is an example of an inherited control?
    • A) Data encryption
    • B) Physical security
    • C) Identity and access management
    • D) Patch management
    • Answer: B) Physical security
  6. Who is responsible for the configuration of security groups in AWS?
    • A) AWS
    • B) Customer
    • C) Both AWS and Customer
    • D) Neither AWS nor Customer
    • Answer: B) Customer
  7. Who manages the patching of the guest operating system in an AWS environment?
    • A) AWS
    • B) Customer
    • C) Both AWS and Customer
    • D) Neither AWS nor Customer
    • Answer: B) Customer
  8. Who is responsible for training AWS employees on security practices?
    • A) AWS
    • B) Customer
    • C) Both AWS and Customer
    • D) Neither AWS nor Customer
    • Answer: A) AWS
  9. Which security aspect is a shared control between AWS and the customer?
    • A) Data encryption
    • B) Physical security
    • C) Patch management
    • D) Climate control in data centers
    • Answer: A) Data encryption
  10. Who is responsible for managing access controls within the customer’s AWS environment?
    • A) AWS
    • B) Customer
    • C) Both AWS and Customer
    • D) Neither AWS nor Customer
    • Answer: B) Customer
  11. What is a key feature of AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)?
    • A) It provides a cost-effective way to store data.
    • B) It allows users to manage access to AWS resources.
    • C) It helps in creating and managing AWS billing accounts.
    • D) It automatically terminates unused Amazon EC2 instances.
    • Answer: B) It allows users to manage access to AWS resources.
  12. Which of the following is an example of a resource in an AWS account that IAM can manage access to?
    • A) Amazon CloudWatch alarm
    • B) Amazon Route 53 hosted zone
    • C) Amazon EC2 instance
    • D) AWS Identity Center
    • Answer: C) Amazon EC2 instance
  13. What are the primary components of fine-grained access rights in IAM?
    • A) Time of access, type of device used, and geographic location
    • B) Who can access the resource, which resources can be accessed, and what actions can be performed
    • C) The size of the resource, cost of the resource, and the region of the resource
    • D) User age, user role, and type of AWS service used
    • Answer: B) Who can access the resource, which resources can be accessed, and what actions can be performed
  14. When defining an IAM user for AWS Management Console access, which authentication factors are required?
    • A) Access key ID and secret access key
    • B) 12-digit Account ID or alias, IAM user name, IAM password, and optionally MFA code
    • C) Username, password, and user email address
    • D) IAM user name, IAM password, and SSH key
    • Answer: B) 12-digit Account ID or alias, IAM user name, IAM password, and optionally MFA code
  15. What is the role of authorization in AWS IAM?
    • A) To encrypt data in transit.
    • B) To determine what permissions a user, service, or application should be granted after authentication.
    • C) To authenticate users accessing AWS services.
    • D) To provide a backup of IAM policies and roles.
    • Answer: B) To determine what permissions a user, service, or application should be granted after authentication.
  16. What does EC2 stand for in AWS?
    • A) Elastic Compute Cloud
    • B) Elastic Container Cloud
    • C) Elastic Compute Capacity
    • D) Elastic Cloud Compute
    • Answer: A) Elastic Compute Cloud
  17. What is the purpose of an EC2 instance?
    • A) To store files
    • B) To host virtual servers
    • C) To manage databases
    • D) To create networking configurations
    • Answer: B) To host virtual servers
  18. Which of the following is a default instance type for general-purpose use?
    • A) T3
    • B) C5
    • C) R5
    • D) P3
    • Answer: A) T3
  19. What does an internet gateway do in an EC2 setup?
    • A) Manages instance security
    • B) Allows instances to connect to the internet
    • C) Provides storage for instances
    • D) Balances instance load
    • Answer: B) Allows instances to connect to the internet
  20. What is a default VPC in AWS?
    • A) A pre-configured virtual private cloud
    • B) A manually configured network
    • C) A database instance
    • D) A compute instance
    • Answer: A) A pre-configured virtual private cloud
  21. Which instance type is optimized for compute-intensive workloads?
    • A) T3
    • B) R5
    • C) C5
    • D) M5
    • Answer: C) C5
  22. What does a subnet mask define?
    • A) The IP address of an instance
    • B) The subnet portion of an IP address
    • C) The instance type
    • D) The region of deployment
    • Answer: B) The subnet portion of an IP address
  23. Which instance type is optimized for memory-intensive applications?
    • A) T3
    • B) M5
    • C) R5
    • D) C5
    • Answer: C) R5
  24. What is the purpose of the security group in AWS EC2?
    • A) To provide physical security to the data center
    • B) To manage network traffic rules for instances
    • C) To allocate storage to instances
    • D) To monitor instance performance
    • Answer: B) To manage network traffic rules for instances
  25. Which AWS service provides a scalable block storage solution for EC2 instances?
    • A) Amazon S3
    • B) Amazon RDS
    • C) Amazon EBS
    • D) Amazon Glacier
    • Answer: C) Amazon EBS
  1. Which feature of EC2 allows you to save the state of your instance to use it later?
    • A) Auto Scaling
    • B) Snapshots
    • C) Elastic Load Balancing
    • D) AMIs (Amazon Machine Images)
    • Answer: D) AMIs (Amazon Machine Images)
  2. What is the primary function of AWS Auto Scaling?
    • A) To balance load across multiple instances
    • B) To automatically adjust capacity to maintain steady, predictable performance at the lowest possible cost
    • C) To provide security for your EC2 instances
    • D) To manage user access to AWS resources
    • Answer: B) To automatically adjust capacity to maintain steady, predictable performance at the lowest possible cost
  3. Which AWS service is used to monitor AWS resources and applications?
    • A) Amazon CloudWatch
    • B) AWS CloudTrail
    • C) AWS IAM
    • D) Amazon RDS
    • Answer: A) Amazon CloudWatch
  4. What is the default maximum number of Elastic IP addresses per AWS account?
    • A) 2
    • B) 5
    • C) 10
    • D) 20
    • **Answer: B

  1. Which of the following best describes Amazon EC2 Spot Instances?
    • A) Reserved instances with a fixed hourly price
    • B) Instances that automatically scale based on demand
    • C) Unused EC2 capacity that AWS offers at a discounted rate
    • D) Instances that provide dedicated hardware for a single customer
    • Answer: C) Unused EC2 capacity that AWS offers at a discounted rate
  2. What is the purpose of an Amazon EC2 Security Group?
    • A) To manage user permissions for EC2 instances
    • B) To provide a secure connection between EC2 instances and S3
    • C) To control inbound and outbound traffic for EC2 instances
    • D) To configure the network interface of EC2 instances
    • Answer: C) To control inbound and outbound traffic for EC2 instances
  3. Which AWS service helps you to track user activity and API usage within your AWS environment?
    • A) AWS CloudTrail
    • B) Amazon CloudWatch
    • C) AWS Config
    • D) AWS IAM
    • Answer: A) AWS CloudTrail
  4. In AWS IAM, what is a policy?
    • A) A user that can access AWS services
    • B) A set of permissions that define what actions are allowed or denied
    • C) A group of AWS services
    • D) A method to encrypt data at rest
    • Answer: B) A set of permissions that define what actions are allowed or denied
  5. Which instance type is best suited for applications requiring high network throughput?
    • A) T3
    • B) C5n
    • C) M5
    • D) R5
    • Answer: B) C5n
  6. What does the “Elastic” in Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS) signify?
    • A) The ability to resize storage capacity dynamically
    • B) The ability to scale CPU resources
    • C) The ability to handle large amounts of data
    • D) The ability to provide high durability for data
    • Answer: A) The ability to resize storage capacity dynamically
  7. What is an IAM role in AWS?
    • A) A way to securely delegate access to AWS resources
    • B) A method to create new AWS accounts
    • C) A policy attached to an IAM user
    • D) A billing structure for AWS services
    • Answer: A) A way to securely delegate access to AWS resources
  8. Which EC2 instance type is ideal for applications that require high CPU performance for a limited time?
    • A) T3
    • B) C5
    • C) M5
    • D) R5
    • Answer: B) C5
  9. Which AWS service is used to manage and deploy Docker containers?
    • A) Amazon EC2
    • B) AWS Lambda
    • C) Amazon ECS (Elastic Container Service)
    • D) Amazon RDS
    • Answer: C) Amazon ECS (Elastic Container Service)
  10. What is a key benefit of using IAM groups?
    • A) To reduce the cost of using AWS services
    • B) To group AWS accounts for billing purposes
    • C) To manage permissions for multiple users at once
    • D) To automatically backup data
    • Answer: C) To manage permissions for multiple users at once
  11. How can you ensure an EC2 instance is launched within a specific subnet?
    • A) Specify the subnet ID when launching the instance
    • B) Use an Elastic IP address
    • C) Create an IAM role for the instance
    • D) Attach an IAM policy to the instance
    • Answer: A) Specify the subnet ID when launching the instance
  12. Which AWS service allows you to register your application for a domain name?
    • A) Amazon EC2
    • B) Amazon Route 53
    • C) Amazon VPC
    • D) Amazon S3
    • Answer: B) Amazon Route 53
  13. What is the maximum number of IAM users you can create in an AWS account by default?
    • A) 100
    • B) 500
    • C) 1000
    • D) 2000
    • Answer: C) 1000
  14. What does the “t” stand for in T3 instances?
    • A) Temporary
    • B) Test
    • C) Tera
    • D) Burstable
    • Answer: D) Burstable
  15. Which of the following AWS services can be used to create private subnets?
    • A) Amazon RDS
    • B) AWS Lambda
    • C) Amazon VPC
    • D) Amazon CloudFront
    • Answer: C) Amazon VPC
  16. What feature of Amazon EC2 allows you to run instances on dedicated hardware?
    • A) EC2 Spot Instances
    • B) Dedicated Hosts
    • C) Elastic IP Addresses
    • D) AWS Lambda
    • Answer: B) Dedicated Hosts
  17. What is the main purpose of AWS Elastic Load Balancing (ELB)?
    • A) To monitor the health of instances
    • B) To distribute incoming traffic across multiple instances
    • C) To provide DNS services
    • D) To manage access control
    • Answer: B) To distribute incoming traffic across multiple instances
  18. Which IAM entity should be used to grant temporary access to AWS resources?
    • A) IAM user
    • B) IAM role
    • C) IAM policy
    • D) IAM group
    • Answer: B) IAM role
  19. Which of the following is NOT a feature of Amazon EC2?
    • A) Auto Scaling
    • B) Elastic IP addresses
    • C) Instance Store
    • D) Amazon RDS
    • Answer: D) Amazon RDS
  20. Which of the following is used to define permissions for an IAM user?
    • A) Security Group
    • B) Network ACL
    • C) IAM Policy
    • D) VPC
    • Answer: C) IAM Policy
  21. How can you connect to an EC2 instance securely?
    • A) Using HTTP
    • B) Using FTP
    • C) Using SSH for Linux instances and RDP for Windows instances
    • D) Using Telnet
    • Answer: C) Using SSH for Linux instances and RDP for Windows instances
  1. What is the primary benefit of cloud computing for IT resource management?
  • A) Increased physical infrastructure
  • B) On-demand access to resources
  • C) Higher upfront costs
  • D) Fixed capacity and scalability
  • Answer: B) On-demand access to resources
  1. Which of the following is NOT a core characteristic of cloud computing?
  • A) On-demand self-service
  • B) Resource pooling
  • C) Fixed capacity
  • D) Rapid elasticity
  • Answer: C) Fixed capacity
  1. What does a hybrid cloud model combine?
  • A) Two public clouds
  • B) Public cloud and private cloud
  • C) Private cloud and on-premises hardware
  • D) Public cloud and on-premises hardware
  • Answer: B) Public cloud and private cloud
  1. Which service model provides the platform for deploying custom applications?
  • A) IaaS
  • B) PaaS
  • C) SaaS
  • D) DaaS
  • Answer: B) PaaS
  1. What is the primary function of Amazon EC2?
  • A) Object storage
  • B) Block storage
  • C) Virtual servers
  • D) Managed databases
  • Answer: C) Virtual servers
  1. What does AWS Elastic Load Balancing (ELB) do?
  • A) Manages instance storage
  • B) Distributes traffic across multiple instances
  • C) Monitors instance performance
  • D) Secures data at rest
  • Answer: B) Distributes traffic across multiple instances
  1. Which AWS service provides scalable block storage for EC2 instances?
  • A) Amazon S3
  • B) Amazon EBS
  • C) Amazon Glacier
  • D) Amazon RDS
  • Answer: B) Amazon EBS
  1. What is the maximum number of IAM users you can create by default in an AWS account?
  • A) 100
  • B) 500
  • C) 1000
  • D) 2000
  • Answer: C) 1000
  1. Which IAM entity is used to grant temporary access to AWS resources?
  • A) IAM user
  • B) IAM role
  • C) IAM policy
  • D) IAM group
  • Answer: B) IAM role
  1. What does the “Elastic” in Amazon Elastic Block Store (EBS) signify?
    • A) Dynamic resizing of storage capacity
    • B) Scaling of CPU resources
    • C) High durability of data
    • D) Large data handling
    • Answer: A) Dynamic resizing of storage capacity
  2. Which AWS service allows you to register a domain name?
    • A) Amazon Route 53
    • B) Amazon EC2
    • C) Amazon VPC
    • D) Amazon S3
    • Answer: A) Amazon Route 53
  3. What is the purpose of IAM policies in AWS?
    • A) To manage EC2 instance types
    • B) To define access permissions for resources
    • C) To monitor network traffic
    • D) To provide database backups
    • Answer: B) To define access permissions for resources
  4. What is the default maximum number of Elastic IP addresses per AWS account?
    • A) 2
    • B) 5
    • C) 10
    • D) 20
    • Answer: B) 5
  5. Which service model is typically used for managing databases in the cloud?
    • A) IaaS
    • B) PaaS
    • C) SaaS
    • D) DaaS
    • Answer: C) SaaS
  6. What is the primary function of AWS Auto Scaling?
    • A) To distribute traffic
    • B) To monitor instance health
    • C) To adjust capacity based on demand
    • D) To provide security
    • Answer: C) To adjust capacity based on demand
  7. What is the default VPC in AWS?
    • A) A manually configured network
    • B) A pre-configured virtual private cloud
    • C) A database instance
    • D) A compute instance
    • Answer: B) A pre-configured virtual private cloud
  8. Which service is used to deploy Docker containers in AWS?
    • A) Amazon EC2
    • B) AWS Lambda
    • C) Amazon ECS
    • D) Amazon RDS
    • Answer: C) Amazon ECS
  9. Which AWS service provides a secure connection between EC2 instances and other resources?
    • A) Security Groups
    • B) IAM Policies
    • C) Elastic Load Balancing
    • D) Auto Scaling
    • Answer: A) Security Groups
  10. Which of the following is a key feature of AWS IAM?
    • A) It provides storage for instances.
    • B) It allows managing access to AWS resources.
    • C) It automatically scales instances based on demand.
    • D) It monitors instance performance.
    • Answer: B) It allows managing access to AWS resources.
  11. What is an example of a customer responsibility under the AWS Shared Responsibility Model?
    • A) Securing the physical data center
    • B) Managing the security of guest operating systems
    • C) Managing the network infrastructure
    • D) Providing climate control in data centers
    • Answer: B) Managing the security of guest operating systems

71. What is the primary purpose of AWS Availability Zones (AZs)?

A) To provide geographic diversity for data backup

B) To increase the number of regions within AWS

C) To provide fault tolerance and high availability by isolating applications

D) To enable users to access AWS resources from different countries

Answer: C) To provide fault tolerance and high availability by isolating applications


72. How many AWS Global Regions are currently available?

A) 25

B) 33

C) 40

D) 50

Answer: B) 33


73. Which AWS service allows for the secure transfer of data across AWS regions using a content delivery network?

A) AWS Global Accelerator

B) Amazon CloudFront

C) AWS DataSync

D) Amazon S3

Answer: B) Amazon CloudFront


74. In the AWS Shared Responsibility Model, who is responsible for the security of data encryption?

A) AWS

B) The customer

C) AWS and the customer jointly

D) AWS support team

Answer: B) The customer


75. What type of IAM policy allows users to access resources within a specified AWS account but not across different accounts?

A) Resource-Based Policy

B) Identity-Based Policy

C) Service Control Policy (SCP)

D) Permissions Boundary

Answer: B) Identity-Based Policy


76. What does the ‘Effect’ element in an IAM JSON policy specify?

A) The entity that the policy applies to

B) Whether the policy allows or denies access

C) The conditions under which the policy is effective

D) The resources to which the policy applies

Answer: B) Whether the policy allows or denies access


77. Which AWS service can be used to grant temporary access to AWS resources without embedding long-term credentials in applications?

A) AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) Roles

B) AWS Secrets Manager

C) AWS Lambda

D) AWS IAM User

Answer: A) AWS Identity and Access Management (IAM) Roles


78. How often should IAM policies be reviewed to ensure they are up-to-date?

A) Annually

B) Monthly

C) Regularly and as needed

D) Every 5 years

Answer: C) Regularly and as needed


79. What is the primary function of AWS Edge Locations?

A) To host and manage AWS data centers

B) To deliver content with low latency and high speed

C) To manage access to AWS IAM resources

D) To provide backup and disaster recovery services

Answer: B) To deliver content with low latency and high speed


80. What does the ‘Condition’ element in a JSON IAM policy allow you to specify?

A) The permissions granted by the policy

B) The AWS region where the policy is effective

C) The requirements under which the policy is enforced

D) The AWS services covered by the policy

Answer: C) The requirements under which the policy is enforced


81. Which IAM component is used to define what actions an entity can perform on specific AWS resources?

A) Trust Policy

B) Permissions Policy

C) Access Control List (ACL)

D) Session Policy

Answer: B) Permissions Policy


82. What is the maximum number of AWS Regions currently planned to be added?

A) 10

B) 15

C) 21

D) 25

Answer: C) 21


83. Which AWS service provides a high-speed, low-latency connection between on-premises networks and AWS?

A) AWS Direct Connect

B) AWS Global Accelerator

C) Amazon CloudFront

D) AWS VPN

Answer: A) AWS Direct Connect


84. In IAM, what is the primary purpose of a role trust policy?

A) To define what actions the role can perform

B) To specify which entities can assume the role

C) To manage access to AWS services

D) To encrypt data within AWS

Answer: B) To specify which entities can assume the role


85. What is the main benefit of using IAM roles for applications rather than embedding access keys?

A) Reduced costs for AWS resources

B) Enhanced performance of applications

C) Reduced risk of long-term credentials being compromised

D) Easier management of user credentials

Answer: C) Reduced risk of long-term credentials being compromised


86. Which AWS service is used to manage temporary security credentials for workloads running outside of AWS?

A) IAM Identity Center

B) AWS IAM Roles Anywhere

C) AWS Secrets Manager

D) AWS SSO

Answer: B) AWS IAM Roles Anywhere


87. What does the ‘Principal’ element in a resource-based IAM policy specify?

A) The actions that are allowed or denied

B) The entity that the policy applies to

C) The resources covered by the policy

D) The conditions under which the policy is effective

Answer: B) The entity that the policy applies to


88. What should be done if an IAM user leaves an organization or changes roles?

A) Delete the IAM user immediately

B) Rotate the access keys associated with the user

C) Update the IAM user’s permissions

D) Disable the IAM user and rotate the access keys

Answer: D) Disable the IAM user and rotate the access keys


89. Which AWS service is used for centralized access management across multiple AWS accounts and applications?

A) AWS IAM Identity Center

B) AWS IAM Roles

C) AWS Direct Connect

D) AWS Secrets Manager

Answer: A) AWS IAM Identity Center

  1. What does AWS VPC allow you to do?
  • A) Launch resources into a global network
  • B) Launch AWS resources into a virtual network you define
  • C) Connect to external private clouds
  • D) Manage on-premises data centers
    Answer: B
  1. Which component of AWS VPC acts as a firewall for controlling traffic in and out of one or more subnets?
  • A) Security Group
  • B) Internet Gateway
  • C) Network Access Control List (NACL)
  • D) Route Table
    Answer: C
  1. How many VPCs can you create by default per AWS account per region?
  • A) 10
  • B) 50
  • C) 5
  • D) 20
    Answer: C
  1. What does an Internet Gateway in a VPC do?
  • A) Provides a connection to a private network
  • B) Allows communication between instances in your VPC and the internet
  • C) Encrypts data within the VPC
  • D) Connects instances to AWS Direct Connect
    Answer: B
  1. Which of the following is true about public subnets in AWS VPC?
  • A) They do not have a route to the internet gateway
  • B) They have a route to the internet gateway
  • C) They are used for internal communication only
  • D) They are used exclusively for VPC peering
    Answer: B
  1. What is the primary purpose of a NAT Gateway in a VPC?
  • A) To provide high availability for VPC components
  • B) To enable instances in a private subnet to connect to the internet
  • C) To route traffic between VPCs
  • D) To provide direct connectivity to AWS Direct Connect
    Answer: B
  1. Which AWS service provides block-level storage volumes that can be attached to Amazon EC2 instances?
  • A) Amazon S3
  • B) Amazon Glacier
  • C) Amazon EBS
  • D) Amazon EFS
    Answer: C
  1. What is the key difference between block storage and object storage?
  • A) Block storage updates only the changed blocks, while object storage updates the entire file.
  • B) Block storage is used for archiving, while object storage is used for real-time applications.
  • C) Block storage is less expensive than object storage.
  • D) Block storage supports data encryption, while object storage does not.
    Answer: A
  1. Which Amazon EC2 pricing model charges by the hour or second with no long-term commitments required?
  • A) Reserved Instances
  • B) Dedicated Hosts
  • C) On-Demand Instances
  • D) Spot Instances
    Answer: C
  1. What are Dedicated Hosts used for in Amazon EC2?
  • A) To provide high-performance computing
  • B) To address corporate compliance and regulatory requirements
  • C) To scale applications automatically
  • D) To manage predictable workloads
    Answer: B
  1. Which of the following Amazon EC2 instance types is optimized for high-performance, predictable workloads and offers significant cost savings over On-Demand pricing?
  • A) On-Demand Instances
  • B) Spot Instances
  • C) Reserved Instances
  • D) Dedicated Hosts
    Answer: C
  1. Which of the following features is managed by Amazon RDS?
    a) Application optimization
    b) Hardware configuration
    c) Database backups and patching
    d) Monitoring user application performance
    Answer: c) Database backups and patching
  2. Which of the following database engines is NOT supported by Amazon RDS?
    a) PostgreSQL
    b) MongoDB
    c) Oracle
    d) MySQL
    Answer: b) MongoDB
  3. What is the key benefit of using Amazon RDS with Multi-AZ deployments?
    a) Lower costs
    b) High availability during maintenance or failure
    c) Enhanced query performance
    d) Simplified database schema design
    Answer: b) High availability during maintenance or failure
  4. What is the main difference between managed and unmanaged services in AWS?
    a) Managed services require manual scaling
    b) Unmanaged services automatically handle backups
    c) Managed services handle infrastructure tasks automatically
    d) Unmanaged services simplify application development
    Answer: c) Managed services handle infrastructure tasks automatically
  5. What is a key use case for RDS Read Replicas?
    a) Improving application write performance
    b) Reducing read traffic on the primary database
    c) Automating database backups
    d) Handling failovers automatically
    Answer: b) Reducing read traffic on the primary database
  6. Which AWS service is a fully managed NoSQL database solution?
    a) Amazon Aurora
    b) Amazon RDS
    c) Amazon DynamoDB
    d) Amazon Redshift
    Answer: c) Amazon DynamoDB
  7. What feature of Amazon RDS helps in reducing the operational burden for database administrators?
    a) Automatic backups and patching
    b) Manual query optimization
    c) Customization of database engine
    d) On-premise hardware management
    Answer: a) Automatic backups and patching
  8. Which service offers high throughput and scalable NoSQL storage?
    a) Amazon RDS
    b) Amazon DynamoDB
    c) Amazon EC2
    d) Amazon VPC
    Answer: b) Amazon DynamoDB
  9. In Amazon RDS, what happens during a Multi-AZ failover?
    a) The primary database stops functioning permanently
    b) The standby instance is promoted as the new primary
    c) The database is restored from backup
    d) The application needs to be reconfigured
    Answer: b) The standby instance is promoted as the new primary
  10. Amazon DynamoDB Streams are used to:
    a) Archive data for backups
    b) Process real-time changes to items in a DynamoDB table
    c) Automate schema migrations
    d) Increase the database’s read capacity
    Answer: b) Process real-time changes to items in a DynamoDB table
  11. Which of the following is a key benefit of using Amazon Aurora compared to traditional MySQL?
    a) Automatic backups and patching
    b) Higher scalability and performance
    c) Reduced storage costs
    d) Simpler database queries
    Answer: b) Higher scalability and performance
  12. What is the main advantage of Amazon RDS running within a VPC?
    a) Automatic scaling of databases
    b) Customizable network environment and security
    c) High availability across multiple regions
    d) Manual patching and backups
    Answer: b) Customizable network environment and security
  13. What is the difference between Amazon RDS Read Replicas and Multi-AZ deployments?
    a) Multi-AZ improves availability, Read Replicas improve read performance
    b) Read Replicas automatically failover, Multi-AZ handles read traffic
    c) Multi-AZ is for NoSQL databases, Read Replicas for SQL databases
    d) Multi-AZ deployments work across multiple regions, Read Replicas do not
    Answer: a) Multi-AZ improves availability, Read Replicas improve read performance
  14. What type of applications are ideal for Amazon RDS?
    a) Applications requiring complex GET/PUT requests
    b) High throughput, write-heavy applications
    c) Web and mobile applications with moderate query requirements
    d) Applications needing full customization of database configuration
    Answer: c) Web and mobile applications with moderate query requirements
  15. What type of data structure does a relational database use to organize data?
    a) Tables, records, and columns
    b) Documents and collections
    c) Key-value pairs
    d) Graphs and nodes
    Answer: a) Tables, records, and columns
  16. What is a primary advantage of non-relational databases over relational databases?
    a) Better support for complex queries
    b) Ability to scale out horizontally
    c) Use of SQL for querying
    d) Strict schema requirements
    Answer: b) Ability to scale out horizontally
  17. Which feature of DynamoDB allows for flexible schema management?
    a) Global tables
    b) Composite primary keys
    c) Different attributes for items in the same table
    d) Automatic scaling
    Answer: c) Different attributes for items in the same table
  18. How does DynamoDB handle data partitioning?
    a) By using a single attribute as the partition key
    b) By using a combination of attributes as a composite key
    c) By scanning all items for each query
    d) By manually configuring partitions
    Answer: a) By using a single attribute as the partition key
  19. What type of storage does DynamoDB use?
    a) Hard disk drives (HDDs)
    b) Solid-state drives (SSDs)
    c) Magnetic tape
    d) Optical disks
    Answer: b) Solid-state drives (SSDs)

RDS

  1. What feature in DynamoDB allows for the automatic scaling of throughput based on demand?
    a) DynamoDB Auto Scaling
    b) DynamoDB Streams
    c) DynamoDB Global Tables
    d) DynamoDB Query
    Answer: a) DynamoDB Auto Scaling
  2. What is the main purpose of Amazon DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)?
    a) To provide high availability during failure
    b) To improve the performance of write operations
    c) To provide an in-memory cache for read-intensive workloads
    d) To reduce DynamoDB costs
    Answer: c) To provide an in-memory cache for read-intensive workloads
  3. In Amazon RDS, what is a ‘snapshot’?
    a) A real-time backup of the entire database instance
    b) A partial backup of select database tables
    c) A continuous stream of logs
    d) A query execution trace
    Answer: a) A real-time backup of the entire database instance
  4. What feature of DynamoDB allows users to replicate tables across multiple AWS regions?
    a) DynamoDB Streams
    b) DynamoDB Auto Scaling
    c) DynamoDB Global Tables
    d) DynamoDB Backups
    Answer: c) DynamoDB Global Tables
  5. What does Amazon RDS Performance Insights do?
    a) Automates database scaling
    b) Monitors and provides visibility into database performance
    c) Enables users to patch their database instances
    d) Manages RDS backups
    Answer: b) Monitors and provides visibility into database performance
  6. Which of the following is true about Amazon Aurora?
    a) It is designed for NoSQL databases
    b) It provides 5x the performance of standard MySQL
    c) It only supports PostgreSQL
    d) It is not compatible with Amazon RDS
    Answer: b) It provides 5x the performance of standard MySQL
  7. What is the maximum storage size for an Amazon DynamoDB table?
    a) 10 TB
    b) 100 TB
    c) 256 TB
    d) Unlimited
    Answer: d) Unlimited
  8. Which of the following does Amazon DynamoDB NOT support?
    a) ACID transactions
    b) Document and key-value store models
    c) Complex joins across tables
    d) Global secondary indexes
    Answer: c) Complex joins across tables
  9. What is the primary data consistency model of DynamoDB?
    a) Strongly consistent reads
    b) Eventually consistent reads
    c) Both strongly consistent and eventually consistent reads
    d) Weakly consistent reads
    Answer: c) Both strongly consistent and eventually consistent reads
  10. What is the key benefit of using Amazon RDS Reserved Instances over On-Demand instances?
    a) Flexibility to change instance size at any time
    b) Lower hourly rates in exchange for a long-term commitment
    c) Automatic scaling based on demand
    d) Higher performance with enhanced networking
    Answer: b) Lower hourly rates in exchange for a long-term commitment
  11. What does Amazon DynamoDB use to partition data across multiple servers?
    a) Hash-based partitioning
    b) Range-based partitioning
    c) Graph partitioning
    d) Manual partitioning
    Answer: a) Hash-based partitioning
  12. What is the default read consistency for DynamoDB queries?
    a) Strongly consistent reads
    b) Eventually consistent reads
    c) Weakly consistent reads
    d) Both strongly and eventually consistent reads
    Answer: b) Eventually consistent reads
  13. What is the advantage of using Amazon DynamoDB for web applications with unpredictable workloads?
    a) Fixed throughput that scales with demand
    b) Automatic scaling of throughput to match workload
    c) Customizable database schema
    d) Integration with SQL for complex queries
    Answer: b) Automatic scaling of throughput to match workload
  14. What is the purpose of Amazon RDS Proxy?
    a) To manage connections between applications and the RDS database
    b) To handle backups and replication for RDS instances
    c) To optimize read performance for applications
    d) To automatically failover during outages
    Answer: a) To manage connections between applications and the RDS database
  15. Which of the following DynamoDB features supports ACID transactions?
    a) DynamoDB Streams
    b) DynamoDB Transactions
    c) DynamoDB Auto Scaling
    d) DynamoDB Global Tables
    Answer: b) DynamoDB Transactions
  16. Which DynamoDB feature allows querying of non-primary key attributes?
    a) Local secondary indexes
    b) Global secondary indexes
    c) DynamoDB Streams
    d) Partition keys
    Answer: b) Global secondary indexes
  17. What is the benefit of using RDS Multi-AZ deployments in terms of disaster recovery?
    a) It provides read performance improvement
    b) Automatic failover to a standby instance in case of a failure
    c) Improved write throughput during peak loads
    d) Easier database schema management
    Answer: b) Automatic failover to a standby instance in case of a failure
  18. Which storage type does Amazon RDS use to provide persistent storage?
    a) Elastic Block Store (EBS)
    b) Simple Storage Service (S3)
    c) Local NVMe storage
    d) DynamoDB Tables
    Answer: a) Elastic Block Store (EBS)
  19. What benefit does DynamoDB provide for use cases involving large, high-velocity data?
    a) Fixed schema design for complex queries
    b) On-demand scaling and low-latency reads and writes
    c) Tight integration with relational databases
    d) Managed instance patching and backups
    Answer: b) On-demand scaling and low-latency reads and writes
  20. What kind of workloads are best suited for Amazon DynamoDB?
    a) High write and low read traffic
    b) High read and low write traffic
    c) Highly variable workloads with unpredictable spikes
    d) Fixed, consistent workloads
    Answer: c) Highly variable workloads with unpredictable spikes

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